If a civil judge gave an unjust verdict because of a bribe, would you deny that the judiciary was part of the legal system?

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I would deny that such a verdict had the true authority of the state behind it. And the state would disown the verdict if the facts were manifested, just as the Church disowned the verdict of the unjust ecclesiastical judges.

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If a civil judge gave an unjust verdict because of a bribe, would you deny that the judiciary was part of the legal system?

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